Free EVT practice test (2026)

EVT practice test: 10 questions

One question from each of ten EVT exams. Tap an answer to see if you're right and why, or switch to Timed for the real test's pace. Each answer is below its question.

1. EVT F1: Fire Apparatus Maintenance, Inspection & Testing

   Two technicians discuss calculating net pump pressure. Technician A says that when service testing from draft, the intake vacuum (converted to psi) is added to the discharge pressure. Technician B says that when testing from a pressurized hydrant, the positive intake pressure is subtracted from the discharge pressure. Who is correct?

   ATechnician A only BTechnician B only CBoth Technicians A and B DNeither Technician
   Show answer

   Answer: C. Both Technicians A and B

   Net pump pressure isolates the work the pump actually performs. From draft the intake reading is negative, so it is added; from a positive source the intake pressure is subtracted. Both statements are correct.

   • A: omits B; positive hydrant intake is subtracted
   • B: omits A; drafting vacuum is added
   • D: both statements are correct
2. EVT F2: Fire Apparatus Design & Performance Standards

   Two technicians are discussing the optical warning system on a fire apparatus. Technician A says the warning zones are designated A through D, with Zone A at the front and Zone C at the rear. Technician B says that when the apparatus is stopped at an incident and placed in the 'blocking the right-of-way' mode, the white/clear warning lights must be turned off. Who is correct?

   ATechnician A only BTechnician B only CBoth Technicians A and B DNeither Technician
   Show answer

   Answer: C. Both Technicians A and B

   Both are correct: NFPA 1901 (now NFPA 1900) designates Zones A (front), B (right), C (rear), and D (left), clockwise from the front, and white warning lights are not permitted in any zone in the blocking-right-of-way mode, which is energized when the parking brake is set or the transmission is in park. Keeping white off at the scene avoids dazzling oncoming drivers.

   • A: Omits Technician B's correct blocking-mode statement
   • B: Omits Technician A's correct zone designation
   • D: Both statements are actually correct, not neither
3. EVT F3: Fire Pumps & Accessories

   A two-stage (series-parallel) centrifugal pump can be operated in either a volume or a pressure mode using the transfer valve. Technician A says that in the volume (parallel) position, each impeller draws from the intake and discharges together, so the pump's capacity is the sum of both impellers. Technician B says that in the pressure (series) position, the discharge of the first impeller feeds the eye of the second impeller, so the pressures of the two stages add together. Who is correct?

   ATechnician A only BTechnician B only CBoth Technicians A and B DNeither Technician
   Show answer

   Answer: C. Both Technicians A and B

   Both statements are correct: parallel (volume) mode adds the impellers' capacities at single-stage pressure, while series (pressure) mode routes flow through both impellers in sequence so their pressures combine at single-stage volume.

   • A: Technician B is also correct about series pressures adding.
   • B: Technician A is also correct about parallel capacities summing.
   • D: Both technicians correctly describe parallel-volume and series-pressure operation.
4. EVT F4: Fire Apparatus Electrical Systems

   Two technicians discuss electrical load control on a modern pumper. Technician A says a load sequencer turns high-current loads on in timed steps after engine start to prevent excessive voltage drop and alternator overload. Technician B says a load manager (load shedder) automatically drops lower-priority loads when system voltage falls too low. Who is correct?

   ATechnician A only BTechnician B only CBoth Technicians A and B DNeither Technician
   Show answer

   Answer: C. Both Technicians A and B

   Both are correct. A sequential switching device brings high-current loads on in timed steps to limit the startup load on the electrical system. NFPA 1901 permitted one provided it energized the minimum continuous loads first, within 5 seconds; NFPA 1900 (2024) dropped that clause, and its annex only notes that some apparatus use one to limit the start-up load. A load manager is a separate function that monitors system voltage and sheds predetermined loads in a set priority order to protect the batteries.

   • A: B is also correct; load managers shed low-priority loads on low voltage.
   • B: A is also correct; sequencers stagger heavy loads at startup.
   • D: Both statements accurately describe these load-control functions.
5. EVT F5: Aerial Fire Apparatus

   Two technicians discuss driving the aerial hydraulic pump. Technician A says the pump is typically PTO-driven and must be engaged with the engine brought up to the specified high-idle (fast-idle) speed to deliver rated flow. Technician B says the engine should be held at wide-open throttle for all aerial operations to maximize speed. Who is correct?

   ATechnician A only BTechnician B only CBoth Technicians A and B DNeither Technician
   Show answer

   Answer: A. Technician A only

   The PTO-driven hydraulic pump is rated at a governed high-idle rpm that provides proper flow; wide-open throttle is unnecessary and can overspeed the pump, overheat the oil, and cause harsh motion. Technician A is correct.

   • B: Wide-open throttle overspeeds the pump, overheats oil, causes harsh motion.
   • C: B is wrong, so both cannot be correct.
   • D: A is correct, so 'neither' is wrong.
6. EVT DO1: Driver/Operator Inspection

   After the governor cuts out and the driver makes several brake applications, the compressor should begin loading the tanks again (cut in) at approximately:

   A100 psi B60 psi C40 psi D20 psi
   Show answer

   Answer: A. 100 psi

   Cut-in normally occurs around 100 psi so the system recharges before pressure falls dangerously low. A cut-in far below this range indicates a governor problem.

   • B: That is the low-air warning region, not cut-in.
   • C: Far below normal cut-in; brakes are near failure.
   • D: Spring brakes are applying by this point.
7. EVT E0: Ambulance Maintenance, Inspection & Testing

   Two technicians are discussing an ambulance's 12-volt electrical system. Technician A says the charging system must be capable of carrying the minimum continuous electrical load with the engine at idle or fast idle. Technician B says a load-management (load-shedding) system may automatically disconnect non-critical loads to protect the batteries. Who is correct?

   ATechnician A only BTechnician B only CBoth Technicians A and B DNeither Technician
   Show answer

   Answer: C. Both Technicians A and B

   NFPA ambulance standards require the alternator/charging system to support the minimum continuous electrical load at idle, and allow an automatic load manager to shed low-priority circuits, which NFPA 1917 (now NFPA 1900) 7.5.1 requires whenever the total continuous load exceeds the alternator's minimum continuous output. Both statements are correct.

   • A: Technician B is also right; load managers may shed non-critical loads
   • B: Technician A is also right; charging must carry load at idle
   • D: Both statements are correct per NFPA ambulance standards
8. EVT E1: Ambulance Design & Performance

   Technician A says a Type I or Type III modular body can typically be unbolted and remounted onto a new chassis when the original chassis is worn out. Technician B says a Type II van-body ambulance is normally remounted the same way to extend its service life. Who is correct?

   ATechnician A only BTechnician B only CBoth Technicians A and B DNeither Technician
   Show answer

   Answer: A. Technician A only

   Modular Type I/III bodies are engineered to be removed and remounted on a fresh chassis, a major life-cycle cost advantage. A Type II is an integral van conversion generally retired with its chassis, so Technician B is wrong.

   • B: Type II van body is integral and retired with its chassis
   • C: Technician B is wrong; Type II can't be remounted
   • D: Technician A is correct; modular bodies do remount
9. EVT E2: Ambulance Electrical Systems

   Two technicians are discussing an ambulance high-idle (fast-idle) system. Technician A says the system automatically raises engine RPM when the ambulance is parked so the alternator can maintain output for the electrical load. Technician B says the system is typically interlocked to engage only when the transmission is in park or neutral and the parking brake is set. Who is correct?

   ATechnician A only BTechnician B only CBoth Technicians A and B DNeither Technician
   Show answer

   Answer: C. Both Technicians A and B

   High idle boosts alternator output during prolonged stationary operation when large loads would outpace charging at curb idle, and safety interlocks (park/neutral plus parking brake) prevent it from raising RPM while the vehicle could move. Both statements are correct.

   • A: Ignores B's correct park/neutral and parking-brake interlock statement.
   • B: Ignores A's correct description of high idle boosting alternator output.
   • D: Both statements are actually correct, so neither is wrong.
10. EVT ARFF A-1: Design & Performance

    Compared with a typical municipal pumper, NFPA 414 (now NFPA 1900) requires a major ARFF vehicle to have:

    ARapid acceleration from a stop to a required speed within a specified time limit BA longer wheelbase optimized for steady highway cruising between airports CA taller center of gravity so the roof turret can reach farther over an aircraft DA smaller engine to reduce fuel consumption during standby and response
    Show answer

    Answer: A. Rapid acceleration from a stop to a required speed within a specified time limit

    NFPA 414 sets acceleration and speed performance so the vehicle can reach a runway incident within tight time windows. Highway cruising, a raised center of gravity, and a downsized engine would all work against rapid emergency response.

    • B: Steady highway cruising is not the performance the standard addresses; getting across the airport quickly is.
    • C: A low center of gravity is wanted for stability, so raising it is not something a standard would require.
    • D: A large, powerful engine is what the required acceleration performance demands.